📊 NISM Series V-AChapter 10 of 12⚖ 7 marks weightage
Ch.10: Risk, Return and Performance of Funds
Practice questions for NISM-Series-VA: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination
(mandated by AMFI/SEBI for mutual fund distribution).
Chapter 10 carries 7 out of 100 marks
in the final examination. The exam has 100 MCQs, 120-minute duration,
50% passing score, and −25% negative marking per wrong answer.
140
MCQ
140
Total Qs
7
Exam Marks
50%
Pass Score
−25%
Neg. Marking
What You Will Learn in This Chapter
Understand the different types of investment risk
Learn how to measure and compare fund returns
Understand risk measures like standard deviation, beta and duration
Q1MCQMediumTypes of Risk - Unsystematic Risk Examples
Which of the following factors is considered 'unsystematic risk' for a diversified equity mutual fund?
AA sudden increase in overall market interest rates.
BA new government policy impacting the entire manufacturing sector.
CA labour strike affecting one of the companies in the fund's portfolio.
DA global economic recession leading to a widespread decline in stock prices.
Q2MCQMediumTypes of Risk - Basis Risk
A mutual fund manager aims to hedge the interest rate risk of a long-term bond portfolio by using interest rate futures contracts. However, the price movements of the futures contracts do not perfectly match the price movements of the underlying bonds in the portfolio, leading to an imperfect hedge. What type of risk is the fund primarily exposed to in this scenario?
ACredit Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CBasis Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q3MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Returns - Jensen's Alpha
A mutual fund scheme reports a positive Jensen's Alpha. What does this generally suggest about the fund manager's performance?
AThe fund manager has generated returns exactly in line with the market's performance.
BThe fund manager has outperformed the market given the level of systematic risk taken.
CThe fund manager has taken higher total risk than the market.
DThe fund manager has underperformed a comparable passive index.
Q4MCQHardTypes of Risk
Which type of risk primarily arises when the proceeds from maturing debt securities within a fund's portfolio cannot be reinvested at a rate as favorable as the original coupon rate, particularly in a falling interest rate environment?
AInterest Rate Risk
BCredit Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q5MCQEasyTypes of Risk
Which of the following types of risk can typically be mitigated or reduced through effective diversification of a mutual fund's portfolio?
AMarket Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CSystematic Risk
DUnsystematic Risk
Q6MCQHardMeasures of Risk - Beta
Which of the following is a limitation of using Beta as a sole risk measure for a poorly diversified mutual fund?
AIt only measures unsystematic risk.
BIt only measures systematic risk.
CIt does not account for interest rate risk.
DIt is only applicable to debt funds.
Q7MCQMediumPortfolio Turnover Ratio
A high portfolio turnover ratio for an equity mutual fund generally indicates which of the following?
AThe fund manager is adopting a buy-and-hold strategy
BLower transaction costs and potential tax efficiency
CFrequent buying and selling of securities by the fund manager
DA passive investment strategy
Q8MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Returns
What is the key distinction in how the Sortino Ratio measures risk compared to the Sharpe Ratio?
AThe Sortino Ratio uses Beta as its risk measure, while the Sharpe Ratio uses standard deviation.
BThe Sortino Ratio only penalizes downside volatility (negative deviations from the minimum acceptable return), whereas the Sharpe Ratio penalizes both upside and downside volatility (total standard deviation).
CThe Sortino Ratio uses a market benchmark for comparison, while the Sharpe Ratio does not.
DThe Sortino Ratio includes the risk-free rate, but the Sharpe Ratio does not.
Q9MCQMediumPerformance Measurement - Sortino Ratio
Which performance metric specifically focuses on a fund's return in excess of a risk-free rate, per unit of downside deviation, making it particularly useful for investors concerned about negative volatility?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DSortino Ratio
Q10MCQHardValue at Risk (VaR)
A fund house calculates the 99% 1-day Value at Risk (VaR) for its equity fund portfolio as ₹1 crore. What does this imply?
AThere is a 99% probability that the fund will not lose more than ₹1 crore in a single day.
BThere is a 1% probability that the fund could lose more than ₹1 crore in a single day.
CThe fund is expected to gain ₹1 crore on 99% of trading days.
DThe maximum possible loss for the fund in a day is ₹1 crore, with 99% confidence.
Q11MCQHardReturn Measures - XIRR
An investor made multiple staggered investments into a mutual fund scheme over a period of three years and also redeemed some units partially before the final redemption. Which measure of return would be most appropriate to calculate the investor's personalized return from these cash flows?
ACompound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
BAbsolute Return
CRolling Return
DExtended Internal Rate of Return (XIRR)
Q12MCQMediumPerformance Measures - Sharpe Ratio
A fund manager consistently achieves high returns but also takes on significant non-systematic risk. Which performance measure would likely penalize this fund more heavily compared to others, assuming the market risk is constant?
ATreynor Ratio
BJensen's Alpha
CSharpe Ratio
DInformation Ratio
Q13MCQMediumFactors Affecting Mutual Fund Performance
A high portfolio turnover ratio in an equity mutual fund typically indicates:
AThe fund manager adopts a buy-and-hold strategy.
BLower transaction costs and higher tax efficiency.
CFrequent buying and selling of securities, potentially increasing transaction costs.
DSuperior long-term performance due to passive management.
Q14MCQMediumMeasuring Risk
For a well-diversified equity mutual fund, which risk measure is most appropriate for assessing its sensitivity to overall market movements?
AStandard Deviation
BBeta
CR-squared
DSortino Ratio
Q15MCQMediumTypes of Risk
A global equity mutual fund has a significant portion of its assets invested in a developing country. Recently, the government of that country announced unexpected nationalization policies for key industries and imposed strict capital controls. This situation primarily exposes the fund to:
ALiquidity Risk
BRegulatory Risk
CPolitical Risk
DInterest Rate Risk
Q16MCQEasyTypes of Risk
A bond fund manager faces a situation where interest rates decline, leading to the maturity proceeds of existing bonds being reinvested at lower yields. Which type of risk is this scenario primarily illustrating?
AInterest Rate Risk
BCredit Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q17MCQHardPerformance Metrics (Drawdown)
In mutual fund performance analysis, what does the term 'drawdown' primarily refer to?
AThe total capital appreciation of the fund over its lifetime
BThe percentage decline from a peak value to a trough value in the NAV before a new peak is achieved
CThe annual dividend declared by the fund
DThe net inflow of funds into a scheme over a period
An actively managed equity fund has a high tracking error relative to its benchmark. What does a persistently high tracking error primarily suggest about the fund's investment strategy?
AThe fund is likely using a passive investment strategy, aiming to replicate the benchmark.
BThe fund is taking significant active positions that deviate substantially from its benchmark.
CThe fund's portfolio is poorly diversified, leading to higher unsystematic risk.
DThe fund has a very low expense ratio, enhancing net returns.
Q20MCQEasyTypes of Risk
Which of the following types of risk is generally considered diversifiable in an investment portfolio?
AMarket Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CBusiness Risk
DReinvestment Risk
Q21MCQMediumMeasures of Return - CAGR
CAGR (Compounded Annual Growth Rate) is generally considered an appropriate measure for evaluating returns over which of the following periods?
AAny period, irrespective of duration.
BPeriods shorter than one year.
CPeriods longer than one year.
DOnly for periods that are exact multiples of years.
Q22MCQEasyDiversification and Risk
An investor wants to reduce the impact of company-specific news or events (e.g., a single company's product recall or management scandal) on their investment portfolio. What strategy should they primarily focus on?
AInvesting a large sum in a single, high-growth company.
BDiversifying across various companies, industries, and asset classes.
CFocusing solely on government securities, which have no company-specific risk.
DInvesting only in foreign markets to avoid domestic company issues.
Q23MCQMediumPerformance Benchmarking
When evaluating the performance of a diversified equity mutual fund that primarily invests in the largest companies listed on the National Stock Exchange of India, which of the following would generally be considered the most appropriate benchmark?
If a mutual fund scheme consistently shows a negative Jensen's Alpha, what does this primarily indicate about the fund manager's performance?
AThe fund manager has generated returns exceeding the market benchmark.
BThe fund manager has underperformed the market benchmark after adjusting for market risk.
CThe fund has taken on excessive unsystematic risk.
DThe fund has a very low expense ratio.
Q25MCQEasyMeasures of Return
For a mutual fund investment held for a period of less than one year, which measure of return is generally most appropriate to represent its performance?
ACompound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
BAnnualized Return
CAbsolute Return
DXIRR
Q26MCQEasyPerformance Evaluation - Benchmarking
What is the primary purpose of using a benchmark index when evaluating the performance of a mutual fund?
ATo determine the fund's expense ratio
BTo compare the fund's returns against a relevant market standard
CTo calculate the fund's daily NAV
DTo assess the fund manager's educational qualifications
Q27MCQEasyReturn Calculations
An investor invests ₹10,000 in a mutual fund on January 1, 2023, and redeems the investment for ₹11,500 on June 30, 2023. What is the absolute return generated by this investment?
A7.5%
B15%
C30%
D1.5%
Q28MCQEasyRisk Measurement - Beta
If a mutual fund's Beta is 0.8, what does this imply about its sensitivity to market movements?
AThe fund is 80% more volatile than the market.
BThe fund is 20% less volatile than the market.
CFor every 1% change in the market, the fund's NAV changes by 0.8%.
DThe fund's unsystematic risk is 80% of its total risk.
Q29MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Diversification
Which type of risk can be eliminated or significantly reduced through diversification in a mutual fund portfolio?
AMarket Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CSystematic Risk
DUnsystematic Risk
Q30MCQEasyUnderstanding Return - Rolling Return
Which type of return calculation provides a continuous series of returns over a specific period, thereby smoothing out point-to-point volatility and offering a better perspective on consistent performance?
AAbsolute Return
BCompounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
CPoint-to-Point Return
DRolling Return
Q31MCQMediumPerformance Measures - Sortino Ratio vs. Sharpe Ratio
What is the fundamental difference in the risk component considered by the Sortino Ratio compared to the Sharpe Ratio?
AThe Sortino Ratio uses total standard deviation, while the Sharpe Ratio uses only systematic risk.
BThe Sortino Ratio focuses on downside deviation (risk of falling below a target return), while the Sharpe Ratio considers total standard deviation (both upside and downside volatility).
CThe Sortino Ratio uses Beta as its risk measure, while the Sharpe Ratio uses standard deviation.
DThe Sortino Ratio only applies to debt funds, whereas the Sharpe Ratio applies to equity funds.
Q32MCQMediumCalculation of Returns (Total Return)
An investor invested in a growth option of an equity mutual fund. Over the past year, the fund's NAV increased from Rs. 100 to Rs. 110. During the same period, the fund also declared a dividend of Rs. 2 per unit. What is the total return for the investor for that year?
A10%
B11%
C12%
D8%
Q33MCQMediumBenchmarking Fund Performance
Which of the following characteristics is least important for an appropriate benchmark index used to evaluate the performance of an actively managed equity mutual fund?
AReplicable and investable
BUnambiguous and specified in advance
CBroad market representation, even if it includes asset classes not held by the fund
DReflects the fund's investment style and market segment
Q34MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Reinvestment Risk
An investor holds a portfolio heavily concentrated in long-term, high-coupon government bonds. If prevailing interest rates in the market significantly decline, what specific risk does this investor face when the coupon payments are received or when the bonds mature?
ACredit Risk
BInterest Rate Risk (Price Risk)
CReinvestment Risk
DInflation Risk
Q35MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Return Measures
A fund manager is particularly concerned about avoiding significant losses during market downturns. Which risk-adjusted return measure would be most suitable to evaluate this manager's performance, as it specifically focuses on downside risk?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CSortino Ratio
DJensen's Alpha
Q36MCQEasyTypes of Risk
Which type of risk primarily arises when the proceeds from matured investments, such as bonds or fixed deposits, cannot be reinvested at a rate as attractive as the original investment?
AInterest Rate Risk
BCredit Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DInflation Risk
Q37MCQHardPerformance Measurement - R-squared and Beta
In the context of performance measurement, a low R-squared value for a fund's regression analysis against its benchmark index suggests what about the fund's Beta?
AThe fund's Beta is highly reliable and accurately predicts its sensitivity to the benchmark.
BThe fund's Beta is less reliable as a predictor of its sensitivity to the benchmark.
CThe fund has a high unsystematic risk component, which is irrelevant to Beta's reliability.
DThe fund's returns are perfectly correlated with the benchmark.
Q38MCQHardPerformance Measurement
For an Index Fund, a consistently high tracking error primarily indicates which of the following?
AThe fund manager is actively outperforming the benchmark through superior stock selection.
BThe fund is effectively replicating the performance of its underlying index.
CThe fund is failing to closely mimic the returns of its target index, possibly due to high expenses, cash drag, or inefficient portfolio management.
DThe fund is taking on significantly higher systematic risk than the benchmark.
Q39MCQHardComparison of Risk-Adjusted Returns
An investor holds a well-diversified portfolio consisting of several mutual funds. Which risk-adjusted performance measure would be most appropriate for evaluating the individual funds within this larger, diversified portfolio, and why?
ASharpe Ratio, because it considers total risk (standard deviation) which is relevant for individual funds.
BTreynor Ratio, because it focuses on systematic risk (Beta) as unsystematic risk is diversified away in the larger portfolio.
CJensen's Alpha, because it measures the excess return generated by the fund manager's skill, irrespective of diversification.
DInformation Ratio, because it measures excess return relative to tracking error, which is crucial for diversified portfolios.
Q40MCQMediumPerformance Measurement - Information Ratio
An investor is evaluating two actively managed equity funds against their respective benchmarks. Fund A has an Information Ratio of 0.8, and Fund B has an Information Ratio of 1.2. Both funds have similar tracking errors. Based solely on the Information Ratio, which fund has demonstrated superior active management skill?
AFund A
BFund B
CBoth funds are equally skilled
DNot enough information to determine
Q41MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Return
A fund manager calculates the Jensen's Alpha for Fund A as +2% and for Fund B as -1%. Both funds have the same Beta and the same market risk premium. What does this specifically indicate about the fund managers' performance after accounting for systematic risk?
AFund A's manager demonstrated superior stock-picking ability, while Fund B's manager underperformed their expected return given their systematic risk.
BFund A generated 2% more return than the market, and Fund B generated 1% less return than the market.
CFund A took on more unsystematic risk than Fund B.
DFund B had a lower expense ratio than Fund A, leading to its negative alpha.
Q42MCQEasyInflation Impact on Returns - Real Return
If a mutual fund delivers a nominal return of 12% in a year, and the inflation rate for the same period is 5%, what is the approximate real return generated by the fund?
A17%
B12%
C7%
D5%
Q43MCQMediumMeasures of Return
An investor wants to compare the performance of two mutual funds over a 7-month period. Which return measure would be most appropriate for this comparison?
ACompounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
BAbsolute Return
CAnnualized Return
DStandard Deviation
Q44MCQEasyRisk-Adjusted Return Measures - Sharpe Ratio
A mutual fund scheme has a higher Sharpe Ratio compared to its peer group. What does this primarily indicate about the fund's performance?
AThe fund generated higher absolute returns, irrespective of risk.
BThe fund took higher risks to achieve its returns.
CThe fund generated higher returns per unit of total risk taken.
DThe fund's returns were less volatile than its peers, but returns are unknown.
Q45MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Performance Measures
An investor is evaluating two actively managed equity funds. Fund A is highly diversified, while Fund B holds a concentrated portfolio of a few stocks. To best assess the fund manager's skill in generating excess return for Fund B, which risk-adjusted measure would be most appropriate?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DStandard Deviation
Q46MCQHardInterest Rate Risk and Debt Funds
In a rising interest rate environment, which category of debt mutual funds is generally expected to experience the highest negative impact on its Net Asset Value (NAV) due to interest rate risk?
ALiquid Funds
BUltra Short Duration Funds
CLong Duration Funds
DMoney Market Funds
Q47MCQEasyReturn in Mutual Funds
An investor invests in a mutual fund for a period of 8 months and wants to know their fund's performance. Which of the following return measures would be most appropriate to calculate for this period?
ACompounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
BAnnualized Return
CPoint-to-Point Return (Absolute Return)
DRolling Return
Q48MCQEasyMeasuring Return
An investor bought units of a mutual fund at an NAV of ₹50 and redeemed them after 6 months at an NAV of ₹55. There were no dividends distributed during this period. What is the absolute return generated by the investment?
A5%
B10%
C12%
D20%
Q49MCQEasyMeasures of Volatility - Beta
A mutual fund scheme has a Beta of 1.2. This indicates that the fund's returns are expected to be:
A20% less volatile than the market.
B120% more volatile than the market.
C20% more volatile than the market.
DUncorrelated with the market.
Q50MCQEasyBenchmarking
What is the primary purpose of a mutual fund choosing an appropriate benchmark index?
ATo ensure diversification of the portfolio
BTo determine the fund's expense ratio
CTo provide a standard for evaluating the fund's performance
DTo comply with minimum investment limits set by SEBI
Q51MCQMediumConcept of Diversification and its Limits
While diversification helps reduce unsystematic risk, it cannot entirely eliminate all forms of risk in a portfolio. Which of the following types of risk is generally considered least affected by increasing the number of diverse securities in a portfolio?
ACredit Risk
BLiquidity Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DMarket Risk
Q52MCQHardInterpretation of Risk-Adjusted Returns
A large-cap equity fund has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.85 and a Beta of 1.10. The market's Sharpe Ratio is 0.70. The fund's Information Ratio is 0.40. Which statement best interprets these metrics for an investor considering adding this fund to a well-diversified portfolio?
AThe fund outperforms the market on a total risk-adjusted basis, and its active management skill relative to its tracking error is moderate.
BThe fund has higher systematic risk than the market but generates superior returns per unit of total risk compared to the market.
CThe fund provides excellent returns for the systematic risk taken, but its active management skill is not significant.
DThe fund does not justify its higher systematic risk despite outperforming the market's total risk-adjusted return.
Q53MCQEasyTypes of Risk
Which type of risk arises when interest rates decline, leading to a situation where the income generated from reinvesting proceeds from maturing bonds or fixed-income instruments is lower than the original yield?
AInterest Rate Risk
BCredit Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q54MCQMediumPerformance Measures - Rolling Returns
A mutual fund's fact sheet reports 'Rolling Returns' over a 3-year period. What is the primary benefit of analyzing rolling returns compared to point-to-point returns for assessing a fund's consistent performance?
AThey provide the highest possible return achieved over the entire period.
BThey eliminate the impact of market volatility entirely.
CThey reduce the impact of start and end date bias on performance measurement.
DThey only consider the performance during bull markets.
Q55MCQMediumPerformance Measurement
An actively managed equity fund aims to outperform its benchmark, but consistently exhibits a very low tracking error. What could this imply about the fund's investment strategy?
AThe fund is taking significant active bets and deviating substantially from its benchmark.
BThe fund is likely performing very close to its benchmark, possibly indicating it is a 'closet indexer'.
CThe fund manager has superior stock-picking skills that are generating alpha.
DThe fund is highly diversified across various asset classes, reducing idiosyncratic risk.
Q56MCQEasyUnderstanding Return
For an investment held for a period of 6 months, which return measure is generally considered more appropriate for representing the actual growth of the investment during that specific period?
AAnnualized Return
BCompound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
CAbsolute Return
DXIRR
Q57MCQEasyTypes of Risk
Which of the following risks arises when the proceeds from maturing investments cannot be reinvested at a rate as attractive as the original investment, leading to a potential reduction in overall returns?
ACredit risk
BInterest rate risk
CReinvestment risk
DLiquidity risk
Q58MCQMediumPerformance Measures - R-squared
A mutual fund's R-squared value with respect to its benchmark is 0.90. What does this high R-squared value primarily suggest?
AThe fund manager has generated significant alpha.
BThe fund's returns are largely explained by the movements of its benchmark, indicating a strong correlation.
CThe fund has a very low standard deviation.
DThe fund's returns are mostly due to the fund manager's active stock selection.
Q59MCQMediumBenchmarking
What is a key limitation of using a broad market index (such as the Nifty 50 or Sensex) as the sole benchmark for an actively managed diversified equity mutual fund?
AThe index automatically adjusts for all costs and expenses incurred by the fund.
BThe index's composition may not perfectly match the fund's specific investment universe, style, or market capitalization focus.
CThe index always outperforms the actively managed fund over the long term.
DThe index provides a direct measure of the fund's unsystematic risk.
Q60MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Reinvestment Risk
Which of the following is an example of 'reinvestment risk'?
AThe risk that a company's earnings will decline, impacting its stock price.
BThe risk that interest rates will fall, leading to lower returns when maturing investments are reinvested.
CThe risk that an investor will not be able to sell an asset quickly enough without incurring a significant loss.
DThe risk that inflation will erode the purchasing power of future investment returns.
Q61MCQEasyPerformance Evaluation - Tracking Error
A low tracking error for an index fund indicates that the fund's performance is:
AHighly volatile compared to the market.
BClosely mirroring its benchmark index.
CConsistently outperforming its benchmark.
DHeavily reliant on the fund manager's active investment decisions.
Q62MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Performance Measures - Sortino Ratio
When comparing two mutual funds with similar return profiles, a fund manager might prefer the Sortino Ratio over the Sharpe Ratio if they are particularly concerned about:
ATotal volatility of returns.
BSystematic risk exposure.
CNegative deviations from a minimum acceptable return.
DThe fund's ability to beat its benchmark.
Q63MCQMediumTypes of Return - Rolling Return
Which of the following is a key advantage of evaluating a mutual fund's performance using 'rolling returns' compared to 'point-to-point' returns?
ARolling returns only consider capital appreciation, ignoring income distributions.
BRolling returns eliminate the impact of the fund's expense ratio.
CRolling returns provide a more comprehensive view by averaging performance over multiple periods, thereby reducing the bias from specific start and end dates.
DRolling returns are always higher than point-to-point returns for the same period.
Q64MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Returns - Sharpe vs. Treynor
An investor is comparing two equity funds, Fund A and Fund B. Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8 and a Beta of 1.1. Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.9 and a Beta of 0.9. Both funds have similar standard deviations. If the investor already holds a highly diversified portfolio, which risk-adjusted measure would be more appropriate for evaluating these funds' contribution to the existing portfolio, and why?
ASharpe Ratio, because it considers total risk (standard deviation).
BTreynor Ratio, because it focuses on systematic risk (Beta).
CJensen's Alpha, because it measures excess return over expected return.
DStandard Deviation, because it directly measures total volatility.
Q65MCQEasyRisk Metrics - Beta
Which of the following statements best describes the concept of 'Beta' in the context of an equity mutual fund?
AIt measures the fund's total risk relative to the market.
BIt indicates the fund's sensitivity to movements in the overall market.
CIt represents the fund's historical average return over its lifetime.
DIt quantifies the fund's unique, unsystematic risk components.
A mutual fund scheme reports a very high portfolio turnover ratio. What is a likely implication of this for the fund's investors?
ALower transaction costs due to frequent rebalancing
BHigher potential for long-term capital gains due to active trading
CHigher transaction costs and potential capital gains tax implications
DIndicates a passive investment strategy
Q67MCQMediumPerformance Measurement - R-squared
What does a high R-squared value (close to 1) for a mutual fund typically indicate about its performance relative to its benchmark?
AThe fund has generated significant alpha.
BThe fund's returns are highly correlated with the benchmark's returns.
CThe fund has a very low standard deviation.
DThe fund is poorly diversified.
Q68MCQHardUnderstanding Return - Rolling Return
An equity fund states its 'rolling return over a 3-year period' as 15%. What does this specifically imply?
AThe fund's return was 15% in each of the last three calendar years.
BThe fund has consistently generated 15% annualised return for any given 3-year investment period within the specified timeframe.
CThe fund's point-to-point return from three years ago to today is 15%.
DThe fund delivered an average of 15% return over specific 3-year periods, but not necessarily all.
Q69MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Return Measures
Which of the following risk-adjusted return measures is most appropriate for evaluating the skill of an active fund manager in generating excess returns relative to a specific benchmark, rather than the risk-free rate?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DInformation Ratio
Q70MCQMediumPerformance Evaluation - Benchmarking
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of a good benchmark for a mutual fund?
AIt should be unambiguous and transparent.
BIt should be investable.
CIt should be easily replicable by the fund manager without significant effort.
DIt should reflect the fund manager's investment style and universe.
Q71MCQHardPerformance Attribution
In the context of performance attribution for an equity mutual fund, which of the following best describes the 'selection effect'?
AThe impact on returns due to the fund manager's decision to allocate more capital to certain industries or sectors compared to the benchmark.
BThe impact on returns due to the fund manager's ability to pick individual stocks that outperform their respective sector or industry within the benchmark.
CThe impact on returns due to general market movements affecting all stocks.
DThe impact on returns due to the fund manager's timing of market entry and exit.
Q72MCQEasyMeasuring Risk - Beta
An equity mutual fund has a Beta of 0.7. If the broader market, as represented by its benchmark index, experiences a return of +15% over a specific period, what would be the expected return of this fund based solely on its Beta, assuming other factors are constant?
A7% increase
B10.5% increase
C15% increase
D21.4% increase
Q73MCQEasyMeasures of Return - Absolute Return
A mutual fund's NAV was ₹25 at the beginning of the year. At the end of the year, its NAV was ₹27, and it distributed a dividend of ₹1.50 per unit. What is the absolute return for the year?
A8%
B10%
C14%
D12%
Q74MCQMediumMeasures of Return - CAGR
A key limitation of using the Compounded Annual Growth Rate (CAGR) for evaluating a fund's performance is that it:
ADoes not account for the impact of inflation.
BCannot be used for periods less than one year.
CAssumes a smooth, constant rate of growth, ignoring volatility.
DFails to consider the timing and size of intermediate cash flows (additions/redemptions).
Q75MCQMediumSharpe Ratio
Fund X has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, while Fund Y has a Sharpe Ratio of 1.2. Both funds operate in the same market and are compared against the same risk-free rate. What does this information primarily suggest about Fund Y compared to Fund X?
AFund Y has generated higher absolute returns.
BFund Y has taken less total risk.
CFund Y has delivered superior risk-adjusted returns for each unit of total risk taken.
DFund Y has a higher Beta, indicating greater systematic risk.
Q76MCQHardPerformance Measures - Information Ratio
A fund manager has an Information Ratio of 1.5. What does this value primarily indicate about the manager's performance?
AThe fund manager has successfully replicated the benchmark's returns.
BThe fund manager's excess return over the benchmark is 1.5 times their tracking error, suggesting strong active management skill.
CThe fund has a high correlation with the market, close to 1.5.
DThe fund's total risk, measured by standard deviation, is 1.5.
Q77MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Returns - Sharpe Ratio
The Sharpe Ratio measures the risk-adjusted return of an investment by considering which specific measure of total risk in its denominator?
ABeta
BStandard Deviation
CTracking Error
DDownside Deviation
Q78MCQEasySystematic and Unsystematic Risk
Which of the following best describes systematic risk in the context of mutual fund investments?
ARisk specific to a particular company or industry
BRisk that can be diversified away by holding a well-diversified portfolio
CRisk inherent to the entire market or economy and cannot be diversified away
DRisk arising from poor management decisions within a specific fund
Q79MCQHardPerformance Evaluation - Limitations of Performance Measures
When comparing two equity funds with similar investment objectives, which factor, if significantly different, would make a direct comparison using only absolute returns potentially misleading?
When evaluating the performance of an index fund or an Exchange Traded Fund (ETF), which of the following metrics is most crucial for assessing how well it mimics its underlying index?
AExpense Ratio
BSharpe Ratio
CTracking Error
DBeta
Q81MCQEasyImpact of Expense Ratio on Returns
How does a higher expense ratio generally affect an investor's net return from a mutual fund?
AIt increases the net return, as more expenses imply better fund management.
BIt has no direct impact on the net return, as it's factored into the NAV calculation.
CIt reduces the net return, as it's deducted from the fund's assets.
DIt only affects the gross return, not the net return received by the investor.
Q82MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Performance Measures - Treynor Ratio
An investor wants to compare two equity funds that have significantly different betas but both claim to be well-diversified. Which risk-adjusted performance measure would be most appropriate for this comparison?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CSortino Ratio
DJensen's Alpha
Q83MCQMediumPortfolio Turnover
A high portfolio turnover ratio in an equity mutual fund generally indicates which of the following about the fund manager's strategy?
AThe fund manager adopts a buy-and-hold strategy.
BThe fund frequently buys and sells securities, potentially incurring higher transaction costs.
CThe fund is primarily invested in large-cap, stable companies.
DThe fund is likely to have a lower expense ratio due to efficient management.
Q84MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Return Measures - Sortino Ratio
Which risk-adjusted performance measure specifically focuses on downside risk by considering only those returns that fall below a specified minimum acceptable return (MAR) and uses downside deviation as its risk metric?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DSortino Ratio
Q85MCQMediumMeasures of Risk - Beta
A mutual fund scheme has a Beta of 1.25. What does this generally imply about the fund's risk and return characteristics compared to the market index?
AIt is less volatile than the market and is expected to provide lower returns than the market.
BIt is more volatile than the market and is expected to provide higher returns than the market in a rising market.
CIt has the same volatility as the market but is expected to provide higher returns.
DIt is more volatile than the market but is expected to provide lower returns.
Q86MCQMediumUnderstanding Return - Rolling Return
Which performance measurement technique is particularly useful for evaluating a fund manager's consistency over various market cycles and avoiding the 'point-to-point' bias that can arise from specific start and end dates?
AAbsolute Return
BPoint-to-Point Return
CRolling Return
DCompound Annual Growth Rate (CAGR)
Q87MCQEasyTypes of Risk
An investor buys a 10-year bond with a 7% coupon rate. After 5 years, interest rates in the market fall significantly, and the investor receives the coupon payments. When the investor tries to reinvest these received coupon payments, they will likely face:
AInterest Rate Risk
BCredit Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q88MCQMediumTypes of Risk - Reinvestment Risk
Which of the following risks is primarily associated with debt instruments and arises when the proceeds from a maturing bond or coupon payments have to be reinvested at a lower interest rate?
ACredit Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q89MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Systematic and Unsystematic
Which of the following is an example of unsystematic risk for a diversified equity mutual fund?
AA sudden increase in the country's interest rates by the central bank.
BA major economic recession affecting all industries.
CA prolonged period of political instability impacting investor confidence across the market.
DA significant decline in the sales and profitability of a specific sector in which the fund has a substantial holding.
Q90MCQMediumComponents of Return
Which of the following would NOT typically be considered a component of a mutual fund's 'total return' for an equity-oriented scheme?
ACapital appreciation from the increase in value of underlying securities.
BDividends received from the underlying equity holdings.
CInterest income from short-term debt instruments held temporarily.
DEntry load charged at the time of initial investment.
Q91MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Return
A mutual fund has a Treynor Ratio of 0.8, while its benchmark has a Treynor Ratio of 0.7. Both have positive excess returns. What does this imply about the fund's performance relative to its benchmark?
AThe fund generated more return per unit of total risk (Standard Deviation) than the benchmark.
BThe fund generated more return per unit of systematic risk (Beta) than the benchmark.
CThe fund underperformed the benchmark in terms of absolute returns.
DThe fund took on less total risk than the benchmark to achieve its returns.
Q92MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Unsystematic Risk
Which of the following types of risk can typically be mitigated through diversification within a mutual fund portfolio?
AInterest Rate Risk
BPurchasing Power Risk
CBusiness Risk
DMarket Risk
Q93MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Reinvestment Risk
Which type of risk primarily arises when the proceeds from maturing investments cannot be reinvested at a rate as attractive as the original investment, leading to lower future income?
ACredit risk
BInterest rate risk
CReinvestment risk
DLiquidity risk
Q94MCQMediumTypes of Risk - Systematic Risk (Purchasing Power Risk)
An investor is concerned that inflation might erode the value of their investments over time, even if the nominal returns are positive. This specific type of risk is known as:
AInterest Rate Risk
BLiquidity Risk
CPurchasing Power Risk
DCredit Risk
Q95MCQHardRisk Measurement - Limitations of Standard Deviation
A debt fund primarily invests in highly illiquid, unlisted corporate bonds and uses a 'hold-to-maturity' strategy. The fund's returns have historically shown significant positive skewness and fat tails (leptokurtosis) when market conditions are stressed. In this specific scenario, why might standard deviation be an inadequate measure of risk for this fund?
AStandard deviation only measures systematic risk, ignoring unsystematic risk.
BStandard deviation assumes a normal distribution of returns, which may not hold true for illiquid assets or extreme events.
CStandard deviation does not account for the fund's expense ratio, distorting true risk.
DStandard deviation is primarily used for equity funds and not suitable for debt funds.
Q96MCQMediumReturn Calculation - Components of Return
For a debt mutual fund, the total return primarily comprises which two components?
ACapital appreciation from changes in bond prices and dividend income from equity holdings.
BInterest income from bond coupons and capital appreciation from changes in bond prices.
CDividend income and gains from short-term equity trading.
DInterest income and fees charged by the fund management.
Q97MCQEasyTypes of Return
An investor looking at a fund's performance over a 6-month period is provided with an 'absolute return' of 8%. What is the primary limitation of using only this absolute return figure for comparing it with other funds?
AIt does not account for the fund's expense ratio.
BIt does not consider the level of risk taken by the fund.
CIt cannot be directly compared with returns over different time frames (e.g., 1 year).
DIt includes the impact of reinvested dividends, making it appear higher.
Q98MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Return Measures - Information Ratio
Which risk-adjusted performance measure is most suitable for evaluating a fund manager's ability to consistently generate active returns (alpha) relative to the specific risks taken against a benchmark, particularly when considering the consistency of outperformance?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DInformation Ratio
Q99MCQEasyPerformance Measurement
Which of the following expenses is directly deducted from the assets of a mutual fund and is expressed as a percentage of the fund's average net assets?
AExit Load
BEntry Load
CExpense Ratio
DBrokerage Commission paid by investor
Q100MCQMediumPerformance Measurement - Sharpe vs. Treynor Ratio
A fund manager is evaluating two equity funds. Fund A has a high Sharpe Ratio but also a high standard deviation. Fund B has a lower Sharpe Ratio but a higher Treynor Ratio. If the manager believes that the market risk (Beta) is the primary concern for the investors in these funds, which ratio would be more appropriate for comparing the funds?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DInformation Ratio
Q101MCQEasyTypes of Return - Total Return
What does the 'Total Return' of a mutual fund primarily represent?
AOnly the capital appreciation of the fund's NAV
BThe sum of all expenses charged by the fund
CThe overall return generated from both capital appreciation (or depreciation) and income distributions (dividends/interest) over a period, before taxes
DThe return adjusted for inflation and taxes
Q102MCQMediumReturn Measures
Why are 'Rolling Returns' often considered a more robust and less biased measure of a mutual fund's performance compared to point-to-point returns, especially for long-term evaluation?
ARolling returns only consider the best-performing periods, exaggerating returns.
BThey eliminate the impact of market volatility by averaging returns over a fixed period, regardless of start/end dates.
CRolling returns reduce the impact of specific start and end dates by averaging multiple overlapping periods, providing a smoother and more representative performance picture.
DThey are easier to calculate and interpret for an average investor.
Q103MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Returns (Sharpe vs. Treynor)
Which of the following statements accurately differentiates between the Sharpe Ratio and the Treynor Ratio?
ASharpe Ratio uses Beta as a measure of risk, while Treynor Ratio uses Standard Deviation
BSharpe Ratio measures return per unit of total risk, while Treynor Ratio measures return per unit of systematic risk
CTreynor Ratio is suitable for undiversified portfolios, while Sharpe Ratio is for diversified portfolios
DBoth ratios measure the same type of risk, but use different formulas
Q104MCQEasyReturn Measures
When evaluating the 'Total Return' of a mutual fund scheme over a period, which components are typically included?
AOnly the change in Net Asset Value (NAV) per unit.
BChange in NAV per unit plus any dividends/distributions declared and reinvested.
COnly the dividends/distributions declared during the period.
DChange in NAV per unit minus the expense ratio.
Q105MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Returns
In the calculation of risk-adjusted performance measures like the Sharpe Ratio and Treynor Ratio, what is typically used as the proxy for the 'risk-free rate of return'?
AThe average inflation rate.
BThe yield on a short-term government security, such as a Treasury Bill (T-Bill).
CThe average return of the overall stock market index.
DThe interest rate offered on bank savings accounts.
Q106MCQMediumTypes of Risk - Credit Risk
A debt mutual fund invests primarily in bonds issued by corporate entities with lower credit ratings. Which type of risk is most significantly amplified in such a portfolio?
AInterest Rate Risk
BLiquidity Risk
CCredit Risk
DReinvestment Risk
Q107MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Return Measures - Treynor Ratio
Which of the following is most appropriate for evaluating the performance of an actively managed equity fund against its benchmark, considering only systematic risk?
ASharpe Ratio
BTreynor Ratio
CJensen's Alpha
DStandard Deviation
Q108MCQMediumDebt Fund Risks - Duration
In the context of debt funds, 'Duration' is a crucial measure used to assess:
AThe average maturity period of the bonds in the portfolio.
BThe credit quality of the underlying bonds and their issuers.
CThe sensitivity of a bond's or bond portfolio's price to changes in interest rates.
DThe liquidity of the debt instruments held by the fund.
Q109MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Performance Measures
A mutual fund has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.8, a Treynor Ratio of 12%, and a Jensen's Alpha of 2%. If the risk-free rate is 5% and the market return is 15%, which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the fund's performance?
AThe fund generated 2% excess return over its expected return based on market risk.
BThe fund provided 0.8 units of excess return for every unit of total risk taken.
CThe fund's return per unit of systematic risk was 12%.
DAll of the above are correct interpretations of the given ratios.
Q110MCQMediumReturn Calculation - Absolute Return
A mutual fund's NAV was ₹100 on January 1, 2022, and ₹115 on December 31, 2022. If the fund distributed a dividend of ₹3 per unit during the year, what is the absolute return for the year?
A15%
B18%
C15.3%
D18.3%
Q111MCQMediumTypes of Risk - Unsystematic Risk
What specific type of risk is primarily mitigated by diversifying a mutual fund's portfolio across various industries and sectors, even if all industries are susceptible to a general economic downturn?
ASystematic Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CUnsystematic Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q112MCQMediumRisk Measures - Beta and CAPM
An equity mutual fund has a Beta of 1.2. If the broader market (represented by the benchmark index) is expected to rise by 10%, and the risk-free rate is 5% with a market risk premium of 8%, what is the expected return of the fund according to the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)?
A12.0%
B14.6%
C16.0%
D10.0%
Q113MCQEasyReturn Calculations - Real Return
If a mutual fund delivers a nominal return of 10% over a year, and the average inflation rate during the same period was 6%, what is the approximate real return generated by the fund?
A4%
B16%
C10%
D6%
Q114MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Reinvestment Risk
Which type of mutual fund is most susceptible to reinvestment risk, especially when general interest rates are falling?
AEquity growth funds
BGold ETFs
CDebt funds with a portfolio of short-term bonds or frequent maturity payouts
DInternational equity funds
Q115MCQEasyPerformance Evaluation - Benchmarking
What is the primary purpose of selecting a suitable benchmark for a mutual fund scheme?
ATo determine the fund's expense ratio and operating costs.
BTo compare the fund's performance against a relevant market or segment.
CTo calculate the fund's Net Asset Value (NAV) on a daily basis.
DTo identify the fund manager's compensation structure.
Q116MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Reinvestment Risk
Which type of risk primarily affects debt fund investors when interest rates decline, forcing them to reinvest coupon payments or matured principal at lower prevailing rates?
ACredit risk
BInterest rate risk
CReinvestment risk
DLiquidity risk
Q117MCQEasyMeasures of Return - Components of Total Return
For an equity mutual fund, total return primarily comprises which two components?
ACapital appreciation and interest income.
BCapital appreciation and dividend income.
CInterest income and dividend income.
DExpense ratio and capital appreciation.
Q118MCQEasyComponents of Total Return
Which of the following components are typically included when calculating the 'Total Return' of a mutual fund scheme?
ACapital appreciation and dividends only.
BCapital appreciation, dividends, and interest income.
CCapital appreciation, dividends, interest income, and other income (e.g., from securities lending).
DCapital appreciation, dividends, and income from primary market investments only.
A high portfolio turnover ratio in an equity mutual fund scheme generally suggests which of the following?
AA passive investment strategy aiming to replicate an index.
BLower transaction costs and capital gains tax implications.
CFrequent buying and selling of securities by the fund manager.
DA focus on long-term, buy-and-hold investments with minimal trading.
Q120MCQHardSharpe Ratio vs. Treynor Ratio
A portfolio manager is evaluating two well-diversified equity funds, Fund A and Fund B. Fund A has a higher Sharpe Ratio, while Fund B has a higher Treynor Ratio. Which scenario is most likely to explain this observation?
AFund A has lower total risk, while Fund B has lower systematic risk.
BFund A has superior returns for its total risk, while Fund B has superior returns for its systematic risk.
CFund A has a higher Beta, while Fund B has a lower Standard Deviation.
DFund A is more concentrated, while Fund B is more diversified.
Q121MCQMediumPerformance Benchmarking
When selecting an appropriate benchmark for an actively managed diversified equity fund, which of the following criteria is LEAST important?
AThe benchmark should be investable, allowing for replication.
BThe benchmark should reflect the fund's investment style and market capitalization bias.
CThe benchmark should be easily accessible and transparent for performance comparison.
DThe benchmark should consistently outperform the fund.
Q122MCQHardFund Expenses and Ratios
Which of the following statements regarding the Expense Ratio of a mutual fund is NOT true?
AIt is expressed as a percentage of the fund's average daily net assets.
BIt directly reduces the fund's Net Asset Value (NAV).
CA higher expense ratio always indicates poorer fund management.
DIt includes management fees, registrar fees, and marketing expenses.
Q123MCQMediumMeasures of Risk
An equity mutual fund has a Beta of 1.2. If the overall market (represented by its benchmark index) increases by 10%, what would be the expected approximate change in the fund's return, assuming all other factors remain constant?
AAn increase of approximately 8.33%
BAn increase of approximately 12%
CAn increase of exactly 10%
DA decrease of approximately 12%
Q124MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Returns - Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio
Fund A has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.85 and a Treynor Ratio of 0.12. Fund B has a Sharpe Ratio of 0.90 and a Treynor Ratio of 0.10. Both funds operate in the same market and have the same Beta. Assuming both funds are well-diversified, which statement is most accurate regarding their overall performance?
AFund B demonstrates better overall risk-adjusted returns considering total risk.
BFund A provides superior compensation for systematic risk.
CFund B has a higher expected return for the same level of systematic risk.
DThe information provided is insufficient to compare their overall performance, as Beta is the same.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of an appropriate benchmark for a mutual fund?
AIt should always be a broad market index.
BIt should be easily investable.
CIt should have a lower standard deviation than the fund.
DIt should have a higher average return than the fund.
Q126MCQMediumLimitations of Risk-Adjusted Performance Measures
The Sharpe Ratio is a widely used measure for risk-adjusted returns. However, it may provide a misleading picture when evaluating funds with:
AA perfectly normal distribution of returns.
BSymmetrical return distributions with low kurtosis.
CHighly skewed or fat-tailed return distributions.
DConsistent positive returns and low volatility.
Q127MCQMediumRisk-Adjusted Returns - Treynor Ratio
Which risk-adjusted performance measure evaluates a fund's excess return per unit of systematic risk?
ASharpe Ratio
BJensen's Alpha
CTreynor Ratio
DStandard Deviation
Q128MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Returns and Portfolio Construction
An investor's primary goal is capital preservation with moderate growth, and they are highly averse to large drawdowns. When evaluating equity mutual funds for their portfolio, which combination of characteristics would be most aligned with this objective?
AHigh Beta, High Standard Deviation, High Alpha.
BLow Beta, Low Standard Deviation, Consistent positive Alpha.
CHigh Turnover Ratio, Low Expense Ratio, High Sharpe Ratio.
DSector-specific focus, High P/E ratio stocks, Low Treynor Ratio.
Q129MCQEasyReturn - Total Return
Which of the following components are typically included when calculating the 'Total Return' of an equity mutual fund scheme?
AOnly capital appreciation from the sale of units.
BCapital appreciation, dividends, and interest income received by the fund, reinvested.
COnly dividends received from underlying stocks.
DCapital appreciation minus management fees and transaction costs.
Q130MCQEasyTypes of Investment Risk
Which type of risk is most relevant for a debt fund holding bonds that mature and the proceeds need to be reinvested at potentially lower interest rates?
ACredit Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CReinvestment Risk
DLiquidity Risk
Q131MCQHardRisk-Adjusted Return Measures - Information Ratio
An Information Ratio of 0.5 for a mutual fund indicates:
AThe fund generated 0.5% excess return for every 1% of total risk taken.
BThe fund generated 0.5% excess return for every 1% of active risk (tracking error) taken.
CThe fund outperformed its benchmark by 0.5% annually.
DThe fund's active return was 0.5 times its beta.
Q132MCQMediumPerformance Evaluation Metrics
A passively managed index fund aims to replicate the performance of the Nifty 50 index. The degree to which the fund's return deviates from the Nifty 50 index return over a period is best measured by which of the following?
AExpense Ratio
BBeta
CTracking Error
DStandard Deviation
Q133MCQMediumTypes of Return - Rolling Returns
What is the primary advantage of analyzing a mutual fund's rolling returns (e.g., 3-year rolling returns over a 10-year period) compared to point-to-point returns (e.g., a single 3-year CAGR) for performance evaluation?
ARolling returns always provide a higher return figure.
BThey eliminate the impact of market volatility entirely.
CThey offer a more consistent and comprehensive view of performance across different market cycles, reducing 'start-end' date bias.
DThey are simpler to calculate and understand for retail investors.
Q134MCQEasyPerformance Evaluation Metrics
What does a mutual fund's 'tracking error' primarily measure?
AThe total risk (standard deviation) of the fund's portfolio.
BThe sensitivity of the fund's returns to market movements (Beta).
CThe consistency with which the fund's returns deviate from its benchmark index.
DThe fund's ability to generate returns in excess of the risk-free rate.
Q135MCQEasyTypes of Risk - Unsystematic Risk
Which of the following risks can typically be mitigated through proper diversification within a mutual fund portfolio?
AMarket Risk
BInterest Rate Risk
CBusiness Risk
DInflation Risk
Q136MCQEasyMeasures of Risk - Beta
A mutual fund has a Beta of 0.8. This implies that if the market benchmark rises by 10%, the fund's NAV is expected to:
ARise by 12.5%
BRise by 8%
CFall by 8%
DRise by 10%
Q137MCQMediumBeta
A mutual fund's portfolio has a Beta of 0.75. If the overall market index (benchmark) increases by 10%, what is the expected approximate change in the value of the fund's portfolio, based solely on its Beta?
AAn increase of 7.5%
BAn increase of 10%
CAn increase of 12.5%
DA decrease of 7.5%
Q138MCQMediumPerformance Measurement
For an Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) that aims to replicate a specific market index, a high 'tracking error' would indicate:
AThe fund is taking excessive credit risk.
BThe fund's returns are significantly deviating from its benchmark index.
CThe fund has a very low expense ratio.
DThe fund is highly diversified across different asset classes.
When evaluating the appropriateness of a benchmark for a mutual fund, which of the following characteristics is LEAST essential for an effective benchmark?
AIt should be unambiguous and its construction rules clear.
BIt should be investable, meaning an investor could replicate its returns.
CIt should consistently provide returns significantly higher than the fund's portfolio.
DIt should be measurable and its performance readily available.
Q140MCQEasyVolatility and Beta
If a mutual fund scheme has a Beta coefficient of 1.2, what does this primarily indicate about its volatility relative to the market benchmark?
AThe fund is 20% less volatile than the market.
BThe fund is 20% more volatile than the market.
CThe fund's returns move independently of the market.
DThe fund has outperformed the market by 20%.
About this content: These practice questions are based on the
NISM-Series-VA: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination Workbook
published by the National Institute of Securities Markets (NISM), Mumbai.
NISM is a SEBI-established institution. Questions cover Risk, Return and Performance of Funds with verified answers and explanations.
BullWiser is an independent exam preparation platform — not affiliated with NISM, SEBI or AMFI.
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